About Sapsam FCP_FMG_AD-7.4 2). This implies the combined VaR of a portfolio with these two securities will be less than the sum of VaRs of the two individual securities.
Thus Choice 'c' is the correct answer and the other choices are wrong.

NEW QUESTION: 3
Which single tool helps to troubleshoot client-related issues in a WLAN?
A. Client troubleshooting on the Cisco WCS.
B. The show and debug commands on the controller.
C. The show commands on the AP.
D. Client templates on the Cisco WCS.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

Exam

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NEW QUESTION: 1
Amazon SNSについては、次のサポートされているプッシュ通知サービスのいずれかを介してモバイルデバイスに通知メッセージを送信できます。ただし、
A. Amazon Device Messaging (ADM)
B. Microsoft Windows Mobile Messaging (MWMM)
C. Apple Push Notification Service (APNS)
D. Google Cloud Messaging for Android (GCM)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Amazon SNSでは、モバイルデバイスのアプリに通知メッセージを直接送信できます。モバイルエンドポイントに送信された通知メッセージは、モバイルアプリにメッセージアラート、バッジの更新、またはサウンドアラートとして表示される場合があります。 Microsoft Windows Mobile Messaging（MWMM）は存在せず、Amazon SNSでサポートされていません。
http://docs.aws.amazon.com/sns/latest/dg/SNSMobilePush.html

NEW QUESTION: 2
If A and B be two uncorrelated securities, VaR(A) and VaR(B) be their values-at-risk, then which of the following is true for a portfolio that includes A and B in any proportion. Assume the prices of A and B are log-normally distributed.
A. VaR(A+B) < VaR(A) + VaR(B)
B. The combined VaR cannot be predicted till the correlation is known
C. VaR(A+B) > VaR(A) + VaR(B)
D. VaR(A+B) = VaR(A) + VaR(B)
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
First of all, if prices are lognormally distributed, that implies the returns (which are equal to the log of prices) are normally distributed. To say that prices are lognormally distributed is just another way of saying that returns are normally distributed.
Since the correlation between the two securities is zero, this means their variances can be added. But standard deviations, or volatilities cannot be added (they will be the square root of sum of variances). VaR is nothing but a multiple of standard deviation, and therefore it is not additive if correlations are anything other than 1 (ie perfect positive, which would imply we are dealing with the same asset). Therefore VaR(A+B)=SQRT(VaR(A)