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NEW QUESTION: 1
Refer to the exhibit.

All of the vlans listed in the routing table below are trunked using 802.1q and are active on all switches.
PLC1, PLC2, and PLC3 each has IP address 192.168.0.1/24 and are connected to ports configured for vlan 50. L2SW1, L2SW2, and L2SW3 are not using vlan trunking for vlan 50.
L3SW1 has following routing table:
10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 12 subnets, 2 masks
C 10.3.138.0/23 is directly connected, Vlan307
C 10.3.136.0/23 is directly connected, Vlan306
C 10.15.153.0/24 is directly connected, Vlan398
C 10.3.142.0/23 is directly connected, Vlan309
C 10.3.140.0/23 is directly connected, Vlan308
C 10.3.186.0/23 is directly connected, Vlan293
C 10.15.154.0/24 is directly connected, Vlan399
C 10.3.184.0/23 is directly connected, Vlan292
C 10.3.190.0/23 is directly connected, Vlan295
C 10.3.188.0/23 is directly connected, Vlan294
C 10.3.182.0/23 is directly connected, Vlan291
C 10.3.180.0/23 is directly connected, Vlan290
PLC1, PLC2, and PLC3 cannot be reconfigured. What can be done to be able to simultaneously communicate with PLC1, PLC2, and PLC3?
A. Enable NAT on L2SW1 - L2SW3
B. Add vlan 50 to L2SW4 and assign the administrator's an IP address on 192.168.0.0/24 network
C. Enable NAT on L3SW1
D. Enable NAT on L2SW4
Answer: A

NEW QUESTION: 2
The MOST effective way to incorporate risk management practices into existing production systems is through:
A. policy development.
B. regular monitoring.
C. awareness training.
D. change management.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Change is a process in which new risks can be introduced into business processes and systems. For this reason, risk management should be an integral component of the change management process. Policy development, awareness training and regular monitoring, although all worthwhile activities, are not as effective as change management.

NEW QUESTION: 3
How will the Macaulay duration of a 10 year coupon bearing bond change if 10 year zero rates stay the same but the yield curve changes from being flat to upward sloping?
A. Will decrease
B. Cannot say without more information
C. Will increase
D. Will be unaffected
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Since the 10 year rate has stayed the same, but the curve has gone from being flat to upward sloping, it means the shorter term interest rates have gone down. Recall that Macaulay duration is the PV of the payments received on a bond over its life weighted by the year each payment is received in. Also remember that a bond's current price is nothing but the summation of the different PVs of its various payments. It effectively gives the real average life of the bond - for example if a hypothetical (and impossible) bond derives half of its value from a payment today and the other half from a payment in 10 years, the investor can look at the average as being 5 years (0*50% + 10*50%). That is what is what we are calculating when deriving Macaulay duration.
In this case, a reduction in the near term interest rates increases the PV of the payments received prior to the payment at 10 years. This increases the value of the bond, and also increases the weightage of the earlier payments, decreasing the Macaulay duration (by shifting it closer to now and further behind from the maturity date).