C_S4TM_2023 Lerntipps - C_S4TM_2023 Testing Engine, C_S4TM_2023 Musterprüfungsfragen - Sapsam

  • Exam Code: C_S4TM_2023
  • Exam Name: SAP Certified Associate - SAP S/4HANA Cloud Private Edition - Transportation Management
  • Version: V15.35     Q & A: 208 Questions and Answers

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NEW QUESTION: 1
Which two statements are true about RMAN incremental level-1 backups for a database running on an X5 Database Machine?
A. Block Change tracking (BCT) is not needed for databases in an X5 Database Machine, because ASM automatically does block change tracking when diskgroups are built from griddisks.
B. cellsrv returns all blocks that have been or might have been changed since the last backup, and RMAN filters the blocks that do not require backup.
C. cellsrv filters blocks and returns only those that have changed since the last backup, for databases in archivelog mode.
D. Block Change Tracking (BCT) is not needed for databases in an X5 Database Machine, because change tracking is done by cellsrv.
E. cellsrv filters blocks and returns only those that have changed since the last backup, for databases in noarchivelog mode.
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
D: Whenever data blocks change, the Change Tracking Writer (CTWR) background process tracks the changed blocks in a private area of memory.
When RMAN performs an incremental backup on the Exadata platform, cellsrv filters out unwanted blocks and sends back only those that have changed since the last level 0 or level 1 backup.
E: For the Exadata platform, you may choose to allow cellserv to do all the blocking filtering for incremental backups.
Note: RMAN block change tracking is used to improve the performance of incremental backup. The level 0 incremental backup scans the entire database but level 1 incremental backups use the block change tracking file to scan only the blocks that have changed since the last backup. This significantly reduces the amount of reads that are required on the database.
References: Expert Oracle Exadata (29 Aug 2015), page 319

NEW QUESTION: 2
Jerry Edwards is an analyst with DeLeon Analytics. He is currently advising the CFO of Anderson Corp., a multinational manufacturing corporation based in Newark, New Jersey, USA. Jackie Palmer is Edwards's assistant. Palmer is well versed in risk management, having worked at a large multinational bank for the last ten years prior to coming to Anderson.
Anderson has received a $2 million note with a duration of 4.0 from Weaver Tools for a shipment delivered last week. Weaver markets tools and machinery from manufacturers of Anderson's size. Edwards states that in order to effectively hedge the price risk of this instrument, Anderson should sell a series of interest rate calls. Palmer states that an alternative hedge for the note would be to enter an interest rate swap as the fixed-rate payer.
As well as selling products from a Swiss plant in Europe, Anderson sells products in Switzerland itself. As a result, Anderson has quarterly cash flows of 12,000,000 Swiss franc (CHF). In order to convert these cash flows into dollars, Edwards suggests that Anderson enter into a currency swap without an exchange of notional principal. Palmer contacts a currency swap dealer with whom they have dealt in the past and finds the following exchange rate and annual swap interest rates:
Exchange Rate (CHF per dollar) 1.24
Swap interest rate in U.S. dollars 2.80%
Swap interest rate in Swiss franc 6.60%
Discussing foreign exchange rate risk in general, Edwards states that it is transaction exposure that is most often hedged, because the amount to be hedged is contractual and certain. Economic exposure, he states, is less certain and thus harder to hedge.
To finance their U.S. operations, Anderson issued a S10 million fixed-rate bond in the United States five years ago. The bond had an original maturity often years and now has a modified duration of 4.0. Edwards states that Anderson should enter a 5-year semiannual pay floating swap with a notional principal of about
$11.4 million to take advantage of falling interest rates. The duration of the fixed-rate side of the swap is equal to 75% of its maturity or 3.75 (= 0.75 x 5). The duration of the floating side of the swap is 0.25.
Palmer states that Anderson's position in the swap will have a negative duration.
For another client of DeLeon, Edwards has assigned Palmer the task of estimating the interest rate sensitivity of the client's portfolios. The client's portfolio consists of positions in both U.S. and British bonds.
The relevant information for estimating (he duration contribution of the British bond and the portfolio's total duration is provided below.
U.S. dollar bond $275,000
British bond $155,000
British yield beta 1.40
Duration of U.S. bond 4.0
Duration of British bond 8.5
When discussing portfolio management with clients, Edwards recommends the use of emerging market bonds to add value to a core-plus strategy. He explains the characteristics of emerging market debt to Palmer by stating:
1. "The performance of emerging market debt has been quite resilient over time. After crises in the debt markets, emerging market bonds quickly recover after a crisis, so long-term returns can be poor."
2. "Emerging market debt is quite volatile due in part to the nature of political risk in these markets. It is therefore important that the analyst monitor the risk of these markets. I prefer to measure the risk of emerging market bonds with the standard deviation because it provides the best representation of risk in these markets." Regarding his two statements about the characteristics of emerging market debt, is Edwards correct?
A. Only statement 1 is correct.
B. Only statement 2 is correct.
C. Both statements are incorrect.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Comment 1 is correct. Emerging market debt has been shown to have increased resiliency over time.
When emerging debt markets are hit by some event, they tend to bounce back offering the potential for high returns.
Comment 2 is incorrect. It is true that emerging market debt is quite volatile due in part to political risk and that analysts should monitor the risk of these markets. However, the standard deviation would be a poor measure of risk because the returns for emerging market debr are often negatively skewed. This non- normal return distribution makes the standard deviation a poor measure of risk because it assumes normalicy. (Study Session 12, LOS 36.c)

NEW QUESTION: 3
Welche der folgenden Gründe sprechen für die Aktivierung von Jumbo-Frames? (Wählen Sie ZWEI)
A. Zum Implementieren größerer SQL-Abfragen
B. Zum Erhöhen der Nutzlastgröße
C. Reduziert den CPU-Overhead
D. Zum Erhöhen der Bandbreite
E. Zusätzliche Speicherkapazität für SANs bereitstellen
Answer: B,C

NEW QUESTION: 4
For the budgeting process, you need to extrapolate a base amount across 12 months with a growth factor of 3%. What modeling function do you use?
Response:
A. SPREAD
B. TREND
C. FORECAST
D. WEIGHT
Answer: B

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